This test is weighted the same way the real ATI TEAS 7 is: Science carries the most questions, then Reading, then Mathematics and English. Working through it end to end takes most students around an hour.
Answer what you can and skip what you cannot — unanswered questions are marked incorrect, exactly as they are on the real exam, where there is no penalty for guessing. When you submit, every question opens up to show why the correct answer is right and why each of the others is wrong.
Reading
- Question 1
Read the passage
The physician explained to the patient that the biopsy results showed a benign tumor. She reassured the patient that benign tumors are not cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. While monitoring may still be recommended, the prognosis was excellent, and no aggressive treatment would be necessary.
In the passage, the word 'benign' most likely means:
Correct answer: B. Context clues in the passage indicate that 'benign' means not cancerous: the physician says the tumor 'does not spread,' the prognosis is 'excellent,' and 'no aggressive treatment would be necessary.' These clues all point to the tumor being harmless.
- A. The passage describes an excellent prognosis and no need for aggressive treatment, which contradicts 'dangerous and life-threatening.'
- C. The passage does not describe rapid growth. The reassuring tone suggests the tumor is stable and not threatening.
- D. The passage does not mention infection. The context focuses on whether the tumor is cancerous, not its cause.
- Question 2
Read the passage
According to the World Health Organization, approximately 1.35 million people die each year as a result of road traffic crashes. Seatbelt use reduces the risk of death among front-seat passengers by 45% and the risk of serious injury by 50%. Despite these statistics, some drivers argue that seatbelt laws infringe on personal freedom. Many safety advocates believe that stricter enforcement of seatbelt laws is the most effective way to reduce traffic fatalities.
Which of the following statements from the passage is an opinion rather than a fact?
Correct answer: C. This statement is introduced with 'many safety advocates believe,' signaling it as a professional judgment or opinion, not a verifiable fact. The evaluative phrase 'the most effective way' is subjective — reasonable people could disagree about which approach is most effective.
- A. This is a verifiable statistic from the WHO, making it a fact that can be confirmed through data.
- B. This is a quantifiable statistic from research studies, making it a verifiable fact.
- D. This is another research-based statistic that can be verified, making it a fact.
- Question 3
Read the passage
Hand hygiene is widely recognized as the single most effective measure for preventing healthcare-associated infections (HAIs). The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends that healthcare workers clean their hands before and after every patient contact, after touching potentially contaminated surfaces, and before performing invasive procedures. Studies have consistently demonstrated that improved hand hygiene compliance among staff leads to measurable reductions in infection rates across all types of healthcare facilities.
Based on the passage, what is the primary purpose of hand hygiene in healthcare settings?
Correct answer: B. The passage explicitly states that hand hygiene is 'the single most effective measure for preventing healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).' The entire passage focuses on the role of hand hygiene in infection prevention, with studies confirming reduced infection rates.
- A. While hand hygiene may be required by hospital policy, the passage identifies infection prevention — not administrative compliance — as the primary purpose.
- C. The passage does not mention legal liability. The focus is on the public health benefit of preventing infections.
- D. Although preventing infections could indirectly reduce antibiotic use, the passage does not make this connection. The stated purpose is infection prevention.
- Question 4
Read the passage
Every year, thousands of preventable medical errors claim the lives of patients who trusted the healthcare system to keep them safe. Despite decades of research and countless safety initiatives, the same mistakes continue to occur — wrong-site surgeries, medication mix-ups, and missed diagnoses that could have been caught with basic protocols. How many more patients must suffer before the healthcare industry treats patient safety with the urgency it demands?
What is the author's tone in the passage?
Correct answer: B. The author uses emotionally charged language ('claim the lives,' 'how many more patients must suffer'), a rhetorical question, and a frustrated tone to convey urgency and criticism toward the healthcare industry's response to preventable errors.
- A. The passage is deeply engaged with the issue, using emotional language and a rhetorical question, which is the opposite of indifferent or detached.
- C. The passage discusses patient deaths and suffering. There is no humor or lightheartedness in its tone.
- D. The rhetorical question and emotional language ('trusted the healthcare system,' 'how many more must suffer') reveal a clear critical stance, not neutrality.
- Question 5
A nursing student reads two sources about pain management. Source 1 is a peer-reviewed journal article presenting results of a randomized controlled trial. Source 2 is a blog post by a patient describing their experience with pain medication. Which statement best evaluates these sources?
Correct answer: B. A peer-reviewed journal article reporting a randomized controlled trial uses rigorous scientific methodology, controls for bias, and has been evaluated by experts before publication. While a patient's blog provides valuable personal perspective, it represents one individual's subjective experience and lacks the systematic controls needed for clinical evidence.
- A. These sources have very different levels of scientific rigor. A controlled trial with peer review provides much stronger evidence for clinical decisions than a single patient's anecdotal experience.
- C. While firsthand experience is valuable for understanding the patient perspective, individual experiences cannot be generalized to clinical practice without systematic research validation.
- D. Both sources offer value: the journal article for evidence-based clinical decisions and the blog for understanding the patient experience. Neither is useless.
- Question 6
Read the passage
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder characterized by insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency. Risk factors include obesity, physical inactivity, a family history of diabetes, age over 45, and belonging to certain racial or ethnic groups such as African American, Hispanic, or Native American populations. Unlike type 1 diabetes, which typically presents in childhood, type 2 diabetes often develops gradually and may go undiagnosed for years because early symptoms are mild or absent.
According to the passage, which of the following is a risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes?
Correct answer: C. The passage explicitly lists 'a family history of diabetes' among the risk factors for developing type 2 diabetes, alongside obesity, inactivity, age over 45, and membership in certain racial/ethnic groups.
- A. The passage states that age over 45 is a risk factor, not being under 20. Being younger would not increase risk according to this passage.
- B. The passage identifies physical inactivity as a risk factor. Regular vigorous exercise would be the opposite of a risk factor.
- D. The passage distinguishes type 1 and type 2 as separate conditions. Having type 1 as a child is not listed as a risk factor for type 2.
- Question 7
Read the passage
Understanding the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes is essential for healthcare providers. Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition that typically develops in childhood, in which the body produces little or no insulin. Type 2 diabetes, on the other hand, usually develops in adulthood and is characterized by insulin resistance. While both conditions involve impaired glucose regulation, their causes, onset patterns, and primary treatments differ significantly. Type 1 requires insulin therapy from diagnosis, whereas Type 2 may initially be managed with lifestyle modifications and oral medications.
Which text structure does the author primarily use in the passage?
Correct answer: C. The passage compares and contrasts Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes, using signal words like 'on the other hand,' 'while both,' and 'whereas' to highlight similarities and differences in causes, onset, and treatment.
- A. The passage compares two conditions rather than tracing a cause to its effect.
- B. The passage does not present events in time order. It organizes information by comparing two conditions side by side.
- D. The passage describes two conditions and their differences but does not present a problem and propose a solution.
- Question 8
Read the passage
A hospital tracked hand hygiene compliance rates and healthcare-associated infection (HAI) rates over a three-year period. In Year 1, hand hygiene compliance was 42% and the HAI rate was 8.3 per 1,000 patient days. In Year 2, after implementing an educational campaign, compliance rose to 68% and the HAI rate dropped to 5.1 per 1,000 patient days. In Year 3, with continued reinforcement and accountability measures, compliance reached 89% and the HAI rate fell to 2.4 per 1,000 patient days.
Which of the following is a logical conclusion based on the data presented in the passage?
Correct answer: B. The data shows a clear inverse relationship: as hand hygiene compliance increased (42% → 68% → 89%), the HAI rate decreased (8.3 → 5.1 → 2.4). This supports the conclusion that higher compliance is associated with lower infection rates.
- A. The data shows a consistent inverse relationship across three years, directly contradicting this claim.
- C. The data shows infection rates decreased but were not eliminated (2.4 per 1,000 patient days in Year 3). This is an overstatement.
- D. The data trend suggests compliance drives the improvement. There is no evidence that infection rates would continue to drop without maintaining compliance.
- Question 9
Read the passage
Telehealth has expanded rapidly in recent years, allowing patients to consult with healthcare providers remotely through video calls, phone appointments, and secure messaging platforms. This shift has proven especially beneficial for patients in rural areas who previously had to travel long distances for specialist care. However, telehealth also presents challenges, including limited access for patients without reliable internet, difficulties performing physical examinations remotely, and concerns about data privacy. Despite these obstacles, most healthcare experts agree that telehealth will remain a permanent and growing part of modern healthcare delivery.
What is the main idea of this passage?
Correct answer: B. The passage discusses both the rapid growth and benefits of telehealth (especially for rural patients) and its challenges (internet access, physical exams, privacy). The main idea captures both sides: telehealth has expanded and offers advantages but also faces real obstacles.
- A. The passage states the opposite — that telehealth will remain 'a permanent and growing part of modern healthcare delivery.'
- C. While rural patients are highlighted, the passage says telehealth is beneficial broadly, not only for rural patients. The word 'especially' implies others benefit too.
- D. Privacy is mentioned as one concern among several, but the passage does not conclude that telehealth is unsafe. It presents a balanced view.
- Question 10
Read the passage
The reported cases of medication errors in hospitals represent only the tip of the iceberg. Many errors go unreported because healthcare workers fear disciplinary action or because the errors are caught before reaching the patient and are therefore not documented. Experts estimate that the actual number of medication errors is ten to twenty times higher than what official reports suggest.
In the passage, the phrase 'tip of the iceberg' is used as:
Correct answer: B. 'Tip of the iceberg' is a metaphor meaning that what is visible represents only a small fraction of the whole. The passage uses it to convey that reported errors are a tiny portion of a much larger, hidden problem of unreported medication errors.
- A. The passage is about medication errors, not geography. The phrase is used figuratively, not literally.
- C. A simile uses 'like' or 'as' to make a comparison. This phrase is a metaphor (an implied comparison without 'like' or 'as'), and it relates to hidden size, not temperature.
- D. Hyperbole is deliberate exaggeration for effect. The passage supports the claim with expert estimates, suggesting the statement is factual, not exaggerated.
- Question 11
Read the passage
A pharmaceutical company conducted a study to evaluate the effectiveness of its new cholesterol-lowering drug. The study enrolled 500 participants and found that the drug reduced LDL cholesterol by an average of 30% over six months. The results were published in a medical journal, and the company used them to market the drug to physicians. The study was funded entirely by the pharmaceutical company, and several of the researchers held stock in the company.
Which of the following identifies a potential bias in the study described in the passage?
Correct answer: B. When a study is funded by the company that manufactures the product being tested, and researchers hold stock in that company, there is a potential conflict of interest. Financial incentives could consciously or unconsciously influence study design, data interpretation, or reporting of results, creating potential bias.
- A. 500 participants is a reasonable sample size for a clinical trial. Larger samples generally increase statistical power, not bias.
- C. Publication in a medical journal is a sign of credibility, not unreliability. However, journal publication alone does not eliminate potential bias from funding sources.
- D. A 30% reduction in LDL cholesterol is a specific, measurable clinical outcome commonly used in cardiovascular research.
- Question 12
Read the passage
Postoperative pain management is a critical component of patient recovery. Research shows that patients who receive effective pain control after surgery are more likely to ambulate earlier, experience fewer pulmonary complications, and have shorter hospital stays. Conversely, inadequate pain management has been associated with increased stress hormone levels, delayed wound healing, and higher rates of chronic pain development. Multimodal approaches that combine medications such as acetaminophen, NSAIDs, and regional nerve blocks have shown superior outcomes compared to reliance on opioids alone.
Based on the passage, what can be inferred about patients who do not receive adequate pain management after surgery?
Correct answer: B. The passage directly states that 'inadequate pain management has been associated with increased stress hormone levels, delayed wound healing, and higher rates of chronic pain development.' This supports the inference that patients without adequate pain control may experience these negative outcomes.
- A. The passage states the opposite: patients with effective pain control recover better (ambulate earlier, fewer complications, shorter stays).
- C. The passage does not mention opioid addiction. It discusses opioids as one component of pain management but does not claim all patients develop addiction.
- D. The passage suggests the opposite — that effective pain control helps patients ambulate earlier, implying that physical activity is part of recovery.
- Question 13
Read the passage
If you are experiencing symptoms of a heart attack — such as chest pain or pressure, shortness of breath, pain radiating to the arm or jaw, nausea, or lightheadedness — call 911 immediately. Do not attempt to drive yourself to the hospital. Chew one regular aspirin (325 mg) if you are not allergic. Sit or lie down in a comfortable position and try to stay calm. Every minute counts: the sooner you receive treatment, the more heart muscle can be saved.
The author's primary purpose in the passage is to:
Correct answer: C. The passage uses imperative language ('call 911 immediately,' 'do not attempt,' 'chew one aspirin,' 'sit or lie down') to give direct instructions. The purpose is to instruct readers on the proper actions to take during a heart attack.
- A. The passage provides emergency instructions in a direct, urgent tone. There is no storytelling or entertainment.
- B. The passage does not mention research or donations. It focuses on immediate actions during an emergency.
- D. The passage only discusses heart attacks and does not compare them to other cardiac conditions.
- Question 14
Read the passage
Passage 1: A 2022 study in the New England Journal of Medicine found that patients who received physical therapy within 48 hours of knee replacement surgery had shorter hospital stays (average 2.1 days vs. 3.4 days) and reported less pain at their two-week follow-up compared to patients who began therapy on day three or later. Passage 2: A survey of orthopedic surgeons published in the Journal of Bone and Joint Surgery found that 78% of respondents preferred to begin physical therapy on postoperative day one, citing faster recovery and reduced complication rates. However, 15% preferred to wait until day two or three, expressing concern about the risk of wound disruption from early movement.
Based on the information in both passages, which statement is supported?
Correct answer: B. Passage 1 provides research data showing better outcomes with early therapy (shorter stays, less pain). Passage 2 shows that 78% of surgeons favor early therapy. Together, both evidence and professional opinion support early physical therapy, though some surgeons have concerns.
- A. Passage 2 states that 15% of surgeons prefer to wait, showing there is not universal agreement.
- C. Only 15% of surgeons expressed concern about wound disruption, and Passage 1's research found better outcomes with early therapy, suggesting this concern affects a minority of cases.
- D. Passage 1 shows a clear difference in hospital stays (2.1 vs. 3.4 days), directly contradicting this statement.
- Question 15
Read the passage
Vaccination programs have dramatically reduced the incidence of many once-common childhood diseases. Before the measles vaccine was introduced in 1963, approximately 3 to 4 million Americans contracted measles each year, resulting in 400 to 500 deaths annually. By 2000, measles was declared eliminated from the United States. Similarly, polio, which once paralyzed thousands of children each year, has been eradicated in the Western Hemisphere since 1994. Despite these successes, health officials continue to emphasize the importance of maintaining high vaccination rates because declines in coverage have led to outbreaks of previously controlled diseases.
Which detail from the passage best supports the idea that childhood vaccination programs have been successful?
Correct answer: C. The elimination of measles from the U.S. by 2000 is the strongest evidence of vaccination program success because it shows the disease went from millions of cases per year to being declared eliminated — a concrete, measurable outcome directly attributable to vaccination.
- A. Health officials emphasizing vaccination rates is an action to maintain success, not evidence of past success itself.
- B. Outbreaks due to declining coverage actually suggest challenges to vaccination programs, not evidence of their success.
- D. The introduction of the vaccine is a historical fact but does not by itself demonstrate the program's success. The elimination data does.
- Question 16
Read the passage
Smoking can exacerbate existing respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Patients who continue to smoke while managing these conditions often experience more frequent flare-ups, increased hospitalizations, and a faster decline in lung function compared to those who quit.
In the passage, the word 'exacerbate' most likely means:
Correct answer: B. Context clues indicate 'exacerbate' means to make worse: patients who smoke experience 'more frequent flare-ups, increased hospitalizations, and a faster decline in lung function.' These negative consequences show that smoking worsens the conditions.
- A. The passage describes worsening symptoms, not curing or eliminating conditions.
- C. The passage discusses the effect of smoking on existing conditions, not the process of diagnosing them.
- D. The passage clearly describes negative effects (more flare-ups, more hospitalizations, faster decline), showing smoking does affect these conditions.
Mathematics
- Question 17
A dataset contains the values: 12, 15, 18, 18, 22, 25, 30. What is the median?
Correct answer: B. The data is already in order. With 7 values, the median is the 4th value (middle). Counting: 12, 15, 18, [18], 22, 25, 30. The median is 18.
- A. 20 is the mean of 18 and 22, but those are not the two middle values. The median of an odd-numbered dataset is the single middle value.
- C. 22 is the 5th value, not the 4th (middle) value.
- D. 15 is the 2nd value, not the middle value.
- Question 18
Simplify: 3/4 + 2/3
Correct answer: B. To add fractions with different denominators, find the least common denominator (LCD). The LCD of 4 and 3 is 12. Convert: 3/4 = 9/12 and 2/3 = 8/12. Add: 9/12 + 8/12 = 17/12, which can also be written as 1 5/12.
- A. You cannot simply add the numerators and denominators (3+2)/(4+3). You must find a common denominator first.
- C. 5/12 would result from subtracting (9/12 - 8/12 = 1/12) or another error. The correct sum is 17/12.
- D. 1/2 = 6/12, which is not the result of adding 9/12 + 8/12.
- Question 19
A rectangular room is 12 feet long and 9 feet wide. What is the area of the room?
Correct answer: B. Area of a rectangle = length × width = 12 × 9 = 108 square feet.
- A. 42 = 2(12 + 9), which is the perimeter, not the area.
- C. 21 = 12 + 9, which is just the sum of the dimensions.
- D. 96 = 12 × 8, using the wrong width.
- Question 20
Convert 0.375 to a fraction in simplest form.
Correct answer: A. 0.375 = 375/1000. Simplify by dividing both numerator and denominator by their GCF (125): 375 ÷ 125 = 3, and 1000 ÷ 125 = 8. So 0.375 = 3/8.
- B. 375/100 = 3.75, not 0.375. The correct denominator for 0.375 is 1000, not 100.
- C. 3/4 = 0.75, not 0.375.
- D. 37/100 = 0.37, not 0.375.
- Question 21
The test scores for 6 students are: 70, 82, 88, 92, 95, 97. What is the mean score?
Correct answer: B. Mean = sum ÷ count. Sum = 70 + 82 + 88 + 92 + 95 + 97 = 524. Mean = 524 ÷ 6 = 87.33... ≈ 87.3.
- A. 85 is not the correct mean. The sum divided by 6 gives approximately 87.3.
- C. 90 is the average of the middle two values (88 and 92), which is the median, not the mean.
- D. 88 is one of the individual scores, not the calculated mean.
- Question 22
What is 15% of 240?
Correct answer: B. To find 15% of 240, convert 15% to a decimal (0.15) and multiply: 0.15 × 240 = 36. Alternatively: 10% of 240 = 24, and 5% of 240 = 12, so 15% = 24 + 12 = 36.
- A. 30 would be 12.5% of 240, not 15%.
- C. 24 is 10% of 240, not 15%.
- D. 40 would be approximately 16.7% of 240.
- Question 23
A bag contains 3 red marbles, 5 blue marbles, and 2 green marbles. What is the probability of randomly selecting a blue marble?
Correct answer: A. Total marbles = 3 + 5 + 2 = 10. Probability of blue = favorable outcomes / total outcomes = 5/10 = 1/2.
- B. 1/5 would mean 2 out of 10, which is the probability of green, not blue.
- C. 5/8 divides blue marbles by non-blue marbles, which is not how probability is calculated.
- D. 1/3 = 3.33/10, which doesn't correspond to any category count.
- Question 24
Solve for x: 3x + 7 = 22
Correct answer: B. Subtract 7 from both sides: 3x = 22 - 7 = 15. Divide both sides by 3: x = 15/3 = 5. Check: 3(5) + 7 = 15 + 7 = 22 ✓
- A. If x = 3: 3(3) + 7 = 9 + 7 = 16, not 22.
- C. If x = 7: 3(7) + 7 = 21 + 7 = 28, not 22.
- D. If x = 10: 3(10) + 7 = 30 + 7 = 37, not 22.
- Question 25
The ages of patients in a waiting room are: 25, 32, 32, 41, 55, 32, 67. What is the mode?
Correct answer: B. The mode is the value that appears most frequently. 32 appears 3 times, more than any other value.
- A. 41 appears only once. It is the median (middle value of 7 items), not the mode.
- C. 40.6 is the mean (284/7), not the mode.
- D. 42 is the range (67-25), not the mode.
- Question 26
A nurse needs to administer 0.5 mg of a medication. The medication is available in tablets of 0.25 mg each. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
Correct answer: B. Divide the desired dose by the available dose: 0.5 mg ÷ 0.25 mg per tablet = 2 tablets. Check: 2 × 0.25 mg = 0.5 mg ✓
- A. 1 tablet = 0.25 mg, which is only half the required dose of 0.5 mg.
- C. 3 tablets = 0.75 mg, which exceeds the required dose of 0.5 mg.
- D. 4 tablets = 1.0 mg, which is double the required dose.
- Question 27
A rectangular box has a length of 10 cm, width of 5 cm, and height of 4 cm. What is its volume?
Correct answer: A. Volume of a rectangular box = length × width × height = 10 × 5 × 4 = 200 cm³.
- B. 50 = 10 × 5 (only length × width, the area of the base, missing height).
- C. 19 = 10 + 5 + 4 (sum of dimensions, not volume).
- D. 220 cm² mixes surface area concepts with incorrect calculation and uses wrong units.
- Question 28
Which of the following is equivalent to the ratio 3:5?
Correct answer: A. To find an equivalent ratio, multiply both parts by the same number. 3:5 × 2 = 6:10. Check: 6/10 = 3/5 ✓. You can also simplify 6:10 by dividing both by 2 to get 3:5.
- B. 5:3 is the inverse of 3:5. The order matters in ratios.
- C. 9:20 simplifies to 9/20, while 3:5 = 12/20. These are not equal.
- D. 6:15 simplifies to 2:5 (dividing both by 3), which is not 3:5.
- Question 29
A patient's temperature readings over 4 hours were: 99.2°F, 100.1°F, 101.4°F, and 100.7°F. What was the average temperature?
Correct answer: B. Sum = 99.2 + 100.1 + 101.4 + 100.7 = 401.4. Mean = 401.4 ÷ 4 = 100.35°F.
- A. 100.0°F is not the correct mean of these four readings.
- C. 101.4°F is the highest reading, not the average.
- D. 99.8°F is below the lowest reading (99.2), so it cannot be the average of these values.
Science
- Question 30
Which organelle is known as the 'powerhouse of the cell' because it produces ATP through cellular respiration?
Correct answer: B. Mitochondria are the primary sites of aerobic cellular respiration, where glucose is broken down to produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the cell's main energy currency. They have a double membrane with inner folds called cristae that increase surface area for ATP production.
- A. Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis (translation), not energy production.
- C. The Golgi apparatus modifies, packages, and ships proteins and lipids. It does not produce ATP.
- D. The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein folding (rough ER) and lipid synthesis (smooth ER), not ATP production.
- Question 31
What is the atomic number of an element?
Correct answer: B. The atomic number equals the number of protons in an atom's nucleus. It defines the element — for example, all carbon atoms have 6 protons (atomic number 6). In a neutral atom, the number of electrons equals the number of protons.
- A. The number of neutrons can vary among isotopes of the same element. Neutron count is not the atomic number.
- C. The total number of protons and neutrons is the mass number (A), not the atomic number (Z).
- D. The number of electrons in the outer shell is the number of valence electrons, not the atomic number.
- Question 32
Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood into the aorta for systemic circulation?
Correct answer: D. The left ventricle has the thickest myocardium of all four chambers because it must generate enough pressure to pump oxygenated blood through the aorta and into systemic circulation, supplying the entire body.
- A. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood returning from the body via the superior and inferior vena cava.
- B. The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs through the pulmonary artery for gas exchange.
- C. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the four pulmonary veins and passes it to the left ventricle.
- Question 33
In a scientific experiment, which variable is intentionally changed by the researcher?
Correct answer: B. The independent variable is the factor that the researcher deliberately changes or manipulates to observe its effect on the dependent variable. It is the 'cause' in a cause-and-effect relationship being tested.
- A. The dependent variable is what is measured or observed as a result of changing the independent variable. It is the 'effect.'
- C. Controlled variables (constants) are kept the same throughout the experiment to ensure a fair test.
- D. Confounding variables are unintended factors that may influence results but are not deliberately changed by the researcher.
- Question 34
What is the complementary DNA strand for the sequence 5'-ATCGGA-3'?
Correct answer: A. DNA base pairing rules: A pairs with T, and C pairs with G. The complement of ATCGGA is TAGCCT. The complementary strand runs antiparallel (3' to 5').
- B. This is the same sequence, not the complement. Each base must be replaced with its pair (A↔T, C↔G).
- C. Uracil (U) is found in RNA, not DNA. DNA uses thymine (T) instead of uracil.
- D. This sequence does not follow correct base pairing rules for the given template.
- Question 35
Which type of chemical bond involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms?
Correct answer: B. A covalent bond forms when two atoms share one or more pairs of electrons. This typically occurs between nonmetal atoms with similar electronegativities. Examples include H₂O, CO₂, and O₂.
- A. Ionic bonds involve the transfer (not sharing) of electrons from one atom to another, creating oppositely charged ions that attract each other (e.g., NaCl).
- C. Hydrogen bonds are weak intermolecular attractions between a hydrogen atom bonded to an electronegative atom (N, O, F) and another electronegative atom. They are not true chemical bonds.
- D. Metallic bonds involve a 'sea' of delocalized electrons shared among many metal atoms, different from the localized sharing in covalent bonds.
- Question 36
A patient has damage to the atrioventricular (AV) node. Which cardiac function would be most directly impaired?
Correct answer: B. The AV node is the electrical gateway between the atria and ventricles. It receives impulses from the SA node, briefly delays them to allow the atria to finish contracting, and then relays them to the bundle of His and Purkinje fibers to trigger ventricular contraction. Damage here disrupts atrial-to-ventricular conduction, potentially causing heart block.
- A. Initiation of the heartbeat is the function of the sinoatrial (SA) node, located in the right atrium, not the AV node.
- C. Atrial contraction is triggered by impulses originating from the SA node spreading across the atrial walls. The AV node relays signals downward, not across the atria.
- D. Blood pressure regulation in the aorta involves baroreceptors and the autonomic nervous system, not the AV node.
- Question 37
Which of the following is the correct order of steps in the scientific method?
Correct answer: B. The scientific method follows a logical sequence: (1) Make observations, (2) Ask a question, (3) Form a hypothesis (testable prediction), (4) Design and conduct an experiment, (5) Analyze data, (6) Draw conclusions. Results may lead to new questions, restarting the cycle.
- A. A hypothesis cannot be formed before making observations. Observations come first to identify a pattern or question.
- C. An experiment cannot be conducted before forming a hypothesis. The hypothesis guides what the experiment tests.
- D. This is completely reversed. Conclusions come at the end, not the beginning.
- Question 38
Which phase of mitosis involves the alignment of chromosomes along the cell's equator (metaphase plate)?
Correct answer: B. During metaphase, chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate (the cell's equator). Spindle fibers attach to the centromeres of each chromosome, ensuring each sister chromatid is connected to opposite poles before separation.
- A. During prophase, chromosomes condense and become visible, the nuclear envelope begins to break down, and spindle fibers start to form. Chromosomes are not yet aligned.
- C. During anaphase, sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite poles of the cell. Alignment has already occurred.
- D. During telophase, chromosomes arrive at opposite poles, nuclear envelopes reform, and chromosomes begin to decondense.
- Question 39
What is the pH of a neutral solution?
Correct answer: B. A neutral solution has a pH of 7, where the concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) equals the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH⁻). Pure water at 25°C has a pH of 7. Acidic solutions have pH < 7; basic (alkaline) solutions have pH > 7.
- A. pH 0 is extremely acidic (e.g., concentrated hydrochloric acid), not neutral.
- C. pH 14 is extremely basic/alkaline (e.g., concentrated sodium hydroxide), not neutral.
- D. pH 1 is very acidic (e.g., stomach acid), not neutral.
- Question 40
Which valve prevents the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle?
Correct answer: C. The aortic semilunar valve sits between the left ventricle and the aorta. It opens during ventricular systole to allow blood into the aorta and closes during diastole to prevent backflow into the left ventricle.
- A. The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle. It prevents backflow into the right atrium.
- B. The mitral (bicuspid) valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle. It prevents backflow into the left atrium, not from the aorta.
- D. The pulmonary semilunar valve sits between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. It prevents backflow into the right ventricle.
- Question 41
A researcher wants to test whether a new fertilizer increases plant growth. She grows 20 plants with the new fertilizer and 20 plants without it, keeping all other conditions identical. The group without fertilizer is called the:
Correct answer: B. The control group does not receive the experimental treatment (fertilizer) and serves as a baseline for comparison. Any differences in growth between the control and experimental groups can be attributed to the fertilizer.
- A. The experimental group receives the treatment being tested (the fertilizer). The group without fertilizer is the control.
- C. 'Variable group' is not a standard scientific term for either the control or experimental group.
- D. 'Hypothesis group' is not a standard term in experimental design.
- Question 42
Which of the following is a function of carbohydrates in the body?
Correct answer: B. Carbohydrates (especially glucose) are the body's preferred source of quick energy. They are rapidly broken down during cellular respiration to produce ATP. The brain relies almost exclusively on glucose for fuel.
- A. Long-term energy storage is primarily the function of fats (lipids), not carbohydrates. Glycogen provides short-term storage.
- C. Catalyzing reactions is the function of enzymes, which are proteins.
- D. Carrying genetic information is the function of nucleic acids (DNA and RNA).
- Question 43
Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?
Correct answer: C. Electrons are negatively charged subatomic particles that orbit the nucleus in electron shells (energy levels). Protons are positively charged, and neutrons have no charge (neutral). In a neutral atom, the number of electrons equals the number of protons.
- A. Protons have a positive charge (+1) and are located in the nucleus.
- B. Neutrons have no electrical charge (neutral) and are located in the nucleus.
- D. The nucleus is not a subatomic particle — it is the central part of the atom containing protons and neutrons.
- Question 44
A patient's blood pressure reading is 130/85 mmHg. The number 85 represents which measurement?
Correct answer: B. The bottom number in a blood pressure reading is the diastolic pressure. It measures the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats (during ventricular diastole). The top number (130) is the systolic pressure, measured during ventricular contraction.
- A. The pressure during cardiac contraction (systole) is the top number, which is 130 in this reading.
- C. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is calculated using both systolic and diastolic values, but it is not directly represented by either number in a blood pressure reading.
- D. A standard blood pressure cuff measures pressure in the systemic arteries (typically the brachial artery), not the pulmonary arteries.
- Question 45
Which of the following is an example of a qualitative observation?
Correct answer: B. A qualitative observation describes a quality or characteristic without using numbers — such as color, texture, smell, or shape. 'The solution turned bright yellow' describes a color change, which is qualitative.
- A. 5 cm is a numerical measurement, making this a quantitative observation.
- C. 37°C is a numerical measurement, making this quantitative.
- D. 72 beats per minute is a numerical measurement, making this quantitative.
- Question 46
In a Punnett square cross between two heterozygous parents (Bb × Bb), what is the probability of offspring with the homozygous recessive genotype (bb)?
Correct answer: B. The Punnett square for Bb × Bb yields: BB (25%), Bb (25%), Bb (25%), bb (25%). The probability of the homozygous recessive genotype (bb) is 1 out of 4 = 25%.
- A. 0% would be correct if at least one parent were homozygous dominant (BB). Two heterozygous parents can produce bb offspring.
- C. 50% is the probability of the heterozygous genotype (Bb), not the homozygous recessive.
- D. 75% is the probability of having at least one dominant allele (BB or Bb), not the homozygous recessive.
- Question 47
Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
Correct answer: B. Iron rusting is a chemical change because iron reacts with oxygen and water to form iron oxide (rust) — a new substance with different properties. Chemical changes produce new substances and are generally irreversible. Signs include color change, gas production, temperature change, and precipitate formation.
- A. Ice melting is a physical change — the substance (H₂O) remains the same, only the state changes from solid to liquid.
- C. Sugar dissolving is a physical change — the sugar molecules are dispersed but not chemically altered. Evaporation would recover the sugar.
- D. Cutting paper is a physical change — the paper's chemical composition remains the same, only its size and shape change.
English & Language Usage
- Question 48
Which sentence demonstrates correct subject-verb agreement?
Correct answer: B. The subject is 'group' (singular), not 'nurses.' A collective noun like 'group' takes a singular verb when acting as a unit. 'The group is meeting' is correct.
- A. 'Are' is plural, but 'group' is singular. The prepositional phrase 'of nurses' does not change the subject.
- C. 'Were' is plural past tense, incorrect with the singular subject 'group.'
- D. 'Have been' is plural, incorrect with the singular 'group.'
- Question 49
Which of the following sentences is the most concise?
Correct answer: B. Concise writing eliminates unnecessary words while preserving meaning. 'The patient in the room complained of pain' conveys the same information as the other options in fewer words, without redundancy.
- A. Contains unnecessary words: 'who was' appears twice and 'the one who was' is wordy.
- C. Extremely wordy with 'It was...that was the one' — a cleft sentence structure that adds no clarity.
- D. 'Who was located in' and 'was the individual who' are unnecessarily verbose.
- Question 50
What does the prefix 'hyper-' mean?
Correct answer: B. 'Hyper-' means above normal, excessive, or over. Examples: hypertension (high blood pressure), hyperglycemia (high blood sugar), hyperactive (excessively active).
- A. Below normal is the meaning of 'hypo-' (e.g., hypotension, hypothermia).
- C. Against is the meaning of 'anti-' (e.g., antibiotic, antiseptic).
- D. Without is the meaning of 'a-' or 'an-' (e.g., anemia, apnea).
- Question 51
Which sentence uses commas correctly with a restrictive clause?
Correct answer: A. 'Who is allergic to penicillin' is a restrictive (essential) clause that identifies which patient. Essential clauses are not set off by commas.
- B. Has a comma before the clause but not after, creating an incomplete pair.
- C. Never separate a subject from its verb with a single comma.
- D. Placing a comma after 'The' is grammatically incorrect.
- Question 52
Which transition word best completes the sentence? 'The patient's fever decreased significantly. _____, his appetite returned.'
Correct answer: B. 'Consequently' shows cause and effect — the fever decreasing led to the appetite returning. It signals that the second event resulted from the first.
- A. 'However' signals contrast or opposition, but the two events are related as cause and effect, not contrasting.
- C. 'Nevertheless' means 'in spite of that,' indicating contrast despite expectations. The appetite returning is a natural result, not unexpected.
- D. 'On the other hand' introduces a contrasting viewpoint, not a consequence.
- Question 53
Using context clues, determine the meaning of 'benign' in the following sentence: 'The biopsy results showed a benign tumor, which meant the patient did not need chemotherapy.'
Correct answer: B. The context clue is 'did not need chemotherapy,' which implies the tumor is not cancerous. 'Benign' means non-cancerous, not harmful, or not threatening to health. The opposite is 'malignant' (cancerous).
- A. If the tumor were cancerous, the patient would likely need chemotherapy. The context indicates the opposite.
- C. Rapidly growing tumors are often malignant. The context suggests a non-threatening condition.
- D. 'Infected' relates to pathogens, not tumor classification. Nothing in the sentence suggests infection.
- Question 54
Which word correctly completes the sentence? 'The medication had a significant _____ on the patient's symptoms.'
Correct answer: B. 'Effect' is a noun meaning a result or outcome. 'Affect' is usually a verb meaning to influence.
- A. 'Affect' is typically a verb. A noun is needed after the article 'a' and adjective 'significant.'
- C. 'Affective' is an adjective meaning related to emotions, not a result.
- D. 'Effecting' means 'bringing about' and doesn't fit this sentence structure.
- Question 55
Which sentence uses the most formal and professional tone appropriate for a medical report?
Correct answer: B. Medical reports require formal, precise language. This sentence uses clinical terminology ('acute symptoms,' 'tachycardia,' 'pallor'), avoids slang, and maintains a professional, objective tone.
- A. 'Super sick' and 'really bad' are informal/colloquial expressions inappropriate for medical documentation.
- C. 'This guy' and 'looking terrible' are casual and unprofessional for a medical context.
- D. 'Kinda' and 'pretty fast' are informal and imprecise — unacceptable in clinical documentation.
- Question 56
What does the suffix '-itis' mean?
Correct answer: B. '-itis' means inflammation. Examples: arthritis (inflammation of joints), bronchitis (inflammation of bronchi), appendicitis (inflammation of appendix), dermatitis (inflammation of skin).
- A. Condition of the blood is indicated by '-emia' (e.g., anemia, septicemia).
- C. Surgical removal is indicated by '-ectomy' (e.g., appendectomy, tonsillectomy).
- D. Study of is indicated by '-ology' (e.g., biology, cardiology).
- Question 57
Which sentence is punctuated correctly with a conjunctive adverb?
Correct answer: A. When a conjunctive adverb (therefore, however, moreover) joins two independent clauses, use a semicolon before it and a comma after it.
- B. Using only a comma before 'therefore' between two independent clauses creates a comma splice.
- C. Without any punctuation, this is a run-on sentence.
- D. The semicolon before 'therefore' is correct, but a comma after 'therefore' is also needed.
- Question 58
Which word is the best replacement for the underlined word to improve precision? 'The nurse GAVE the medication to the patient.'
Correct answer: B. 'Administered' is the precise clinical term for providing medication to a patient. It conveys the professional, deliberate act of giving medication according to orders, which is more specific and appropriate than the general word 'gave.'
- A. 'Handed' implies physically placing something in the patient's hand, which is too casual and doesn't cover all routes of medication delivery (IV, injection, etc.).
- C. 'Threw' implies carelessness and is inappropriate for a medical context.
- D. 'Donated' means to give freely as a gift, which is not how medication is provided in clinical care.
- Question 59
Which word is a synonym for 'acute'?
Correct answer: B. 'Acute' means sharp, severe, or sudden in onset. In medicine, it describes conditions that develop quickly and are often intense. 'Severe' shares this meaning of intensity.
- A. 'Chronic' is an antonym — it means long-lasting or ongoing, the opposite of acute.
- C. 'Mild' is an antonym — it means not severe, the opposite of acute.
- D. 'Gradual' means slow and progressive, the opposite of acute's sudden onset.
- Question 60
Which sentence contains a misplaced modifier?
Correct answer: B. 'Running down the hallway' is a misplaced modifier. As written, it suggests the IV pole was running. Corrected: 'Running down the hallway, the visitor knocked over the IV pole.'
- A. 'Carefully' correctly modifies 'administered.'
- C. 'Before making a diagnosis' correctly modifies the physician's action.
- D. 'After studying for hours' correctly modifies 'the student.'
Common questions about the TEAS
How many questions are on the TEAS test?
The ATI TEAS 7 has 170 questions and a total testing time of 209 minutes. They are split across four sections: Reading (45 questions, 55 minutes), Mathematics (38 questions, 57 minutes), Science (50 questions, 60 minutes), and English and Language Usage (37 questions, 37 minutes). Of the 170 questions, 150 are scored and 20 are unscored pretest items.
What is a good TEAS score?
There is no universal passing score — each nursing program sets its own minimum. Most programs look for around 70%, and many will accept a Proficient result in the low-to-mid 60s. Competitive programs often expect 78% or higher, and the most selective can look for the mid-80s and above. Always check the requirement for the specific programs you are applying to, because it varies widely.
Is this TEAS practice test really free?
Yes. All 60 questions on this page, along with the full explanation for every one of them, are free with no signup, no email, and no card. Nothing on this page is gated.
How is this practice test scored?
Your answers are scored in your browser as soon as you submit, and nothing is sent anywhere. You get an overall percentage plus a breakdown for each of the four sections, so you can see which areas need the most work before your exam.
How long should I study for the TEAS?
Most students study for four to six weeks. If you are starting well below your target score, or you have been away from school for a while, plan for eight to twelve weeks. What matters more than total hours is consistency and focusing on your weakest section rather than the one you already enjoy.
Can you retake the TEAS?
Yes, though the rules are set by the school rather than by ATI. Many programs allow two or three attempts in a twelve-month period and require a waiting period of around 30 days between them. Some average your attempts and some take the highest, so check your program's policy before you sit it the first time.